Talk:Allopathy

Oh Boy

Lol, you coulda given Howard one day off! D. Matt Innis 02:53, 5 January 2009 (UTC)

Like me, sigh, Howard is an old man -- so, like Satchel Paige, we gotta keep those juices flowing, stay away from them fatty foods, and think calming thoughts to cool the digestive system. I just know that this article will calm Howard.... Hayford Peirce 03:29, 5 January 2009 (UTC)

I'm not sure about Hayford's comment that it might be in vein; he's trying to cell me on the id-ea, but I'm sore enough to just lymph away. No, there still is a vas deferens between homeopathic and allopathic paradigms. Howard C. Berkowitz 04:10, 5 January 2009 (UTC)

Very seriously

(also to be put on Forum, where an interdisciplinary group will also be suggested.)

For all practical purposes, this is an ancient word that really tells nothing about current science or medicine, which are not based on anything remotely resembling the theory of opposites. In terms of replacing it, I will say, cautiously, that many drug interactions are modeled on mechanisms involving cellular surface receptors, ion channels, and a very wide range of chemical messengers. Indirect effects such as rendering oral contraceptives, antibiotics or anticonvulsants ineffective due to up-regulation of an excretory pathway by theophylline (given for respiratory disease) are hardly as simplistic as similars or opposites.

It is one thing if some citizens want to deal with history or philosophy of medicine; it is quite another if such articles become a "time sink" constantly draining the time of mediators, experts from other disciplines, and other scarce Citizendium resources. Obviously, in a volunteer project, much is driven from what people want to write, as opposed necessarily to what the user base wants to read. Nevertheless, given the scarcity of contributors at present, some attention has to be paid to inquiring if a proposed area of effort will distract us from reaching a critical mass.

Rather that "opposites" or "similars" related to macro-level physiological behavior and even emotions, terms that come into play include agonists, antagonists, and sometimes modulators of various chemical "messengers", which are most often described with respect to subclasses: cytokines in the immune system, neurotransmitters in the neuromuscular system, etc. Completely different behavior, still molecular, relates to biological "programs" minimally expressed as nucleic acid sequences, but, just as the behavior of a minimally complex computer is not defined by the kernel functionality but by the interaction of external interrupts, automata, ordering of events, etc.

I raise this concern here based on an few edit comments, which may or may not indicate the desire of some citizens, given the rather stressful last-minute protests on homeopathy, to try to derive a program of work centered on ancient figures who indeed were idea-producing, but rarely had actual models, or even rules, that are of continuing utility. It's one thing to speak of the evolution of Koch's postulates, which, while they have been extended and modified, still retain an internal consistency. It is another to quote Hippocrates on a matter such as surgery being a separate discipline than medicine ("I will not use the knife, not even on sufferers from stone, but will withdraw in favor of such men as are engaged in this work.") Physicians may not use the knife? No IV cutdowns? No incision and drainage? Sufferers from stone...hmmm, what does the Oath say about lithotripsy? Hippocrates made flat statements on ethical issues where many more choices exist: "I will neither give a deadly drug to anybody who asked for it, nor will I make a suggestion to this effect. Similarly I will not give to a woman an abortive remedy." Is the first a proscription against euthanasia? Passive euthanasia? What about mechanical life support? Is therapy with a lethal dose of a folic acid antagonists followed by leucovorin rescue licit? Obviously, one can very easily get into endless abortion and contraception debates.

Hayford mentioned he put this up more as an exercise; I get very nervous about suggesting that this is even being considered as an entry point to substantial article development. Howard C. Berkowitz 14:45, 5 January 2009 (UTC)

Could a point be explained?

With the exception of its use as a derogatory term by alternative, not complementary or integrative health practitioners, and the specialized and traditional use to distinguish non-osteopathic medical schools, allopathy is as relevant a term as mesmerism. What, then, is the point of introducing an even more obscure term, hypenantiosis, that is even less used?

What is the value to an arbitrary reader to know the word hypenantiosis exists? I'll match my knowledge of history of medicine with most professionals; I've been the last-minute editor of one book on the history of medicine, and I freely admit that I've never seen the word. I feel no less enlightened now that I know it exists, and worry that it might displace useful information, such as the insertion point of the pectoral muscle or, perhaps, one of the subclasses of 5-HT receptor.

Are we running a trivia contest? Let's get out the board game if so; it can be fun, especially when one can observe that some of Trivial Pursuit's "right" answers were wrong. Himmler, for example, was head of the Gestapo only in the sense that he was two levels above the head of RSHA Amt IV. What? This is irrelevant trivia? Pity. Howard C. Berkowitz 16:11, 5 January 2009 (UTC)

I have removed the information in question. It may well be worthy of a separate article of its own, but it has no place in this one. Hayford Peirce 16:42, 5 January 2009 (UTC)

As Howard points out, hypenantiosis has 3 hits in Google, surely close to being a world record for total obscurity and non-notability; allopathy, by contrast, has 204,000 hits. Hayford Peirce 16:46, 5 January 2009 (UTC)

Of course it's extremely rare. But see below. The pointed I wanted to make is... ah, use private email if you really want to know. Not a big deal.--Pierre-Alain Gouanvic 18:35, 5 January 2009 (UTC)

please a source or citations for the last paragraph

"One contemporary usage, which is not considered derogatory and respects historical tradition, is used to distinguish between U.S. osteopathic medical schools that grant the Doctor of Osteopathy (D.O.) degree versus "allopathic" medical schools that grant the degree Doctor of Medicine (Latin Medicinae doctorum, or M.D.)."

What is the source of the above statement? If it's the United States Department of Health, then I agree, it's not derogatory. If it's a homeopathy association or alt. med. source, then I would strongly suspect that it is indeed meant to derogatory, even if in a subtle way. In which case this paragraph will have to be either rewritten or deleted. Hayford Peirce 17:28, 5 January 2009 (UTC)

NEW last paragraph - let's not go off on tangents

I absolutely don't see what this new paragraph has to do with the matter in hand, ie, allopathy. Is there a connection? I think that unless there is a clear connection to the topic, that it should be removed in its entirety. The paragraph above this one, to which I have also objected, at least is directly *connected* with the topic -- it was only its sourcing that bothers me. Hayford Peirce 18:04, 5 January 2009 (UTC)

The absolute connection is that "allopathic" is the term routinely used to refer to the M.D.-granting institutions. They are not using "allopathic" in the Hahnemann sense, but just as a convention for non-osteopathic. Look at the title of that family medicine program in Pennsylvania calling itself allopathic/osteopathic. No tangent. Common distinction having nothing to do with opposites, but as a term that's more esthetically pleasing than "non-osteopathic". The osteopathic physicians insist on the full term, since U.K. ostepaths, for example, are not qualified as full practitioners of medicine. U.S. D.O.'s are in every accredited specialty, although they do tend to primary care. Not surprisingly, however, they are well represented in orthopedic surgery, physical & rehabilitation management, and certain subspecialties such as pain management. For that matter, some subspecialties, can be entered from dental school, perhaps with a general internship first, but it's not uncommon to see dentists in maxillofacial/head and neck surgery, or anesthesiology oHoward C. Berkowitz 19:35, 5 January 2009 (UTC)

Okie, two questions: 1.) If I used the word "allopathy" to my primary doc, who has something or other in Internal Medicine and is also a Geezer Specialist, and seems to be a pretty smart guy in general, would *he* be expected to know what it means? and 2.) Could *you* do a little rewriting of the last paragraph to make whatever connection to want, but at *least* using the word "allopathy" once or twice so that the *general* reader of this article will see what the connection is? Thanks. And by the way, does your response above *also* validate the existence of the *next-to-the-last* paragraph? Is all a puzzlement to me! Hayford Peirce 19:42, 5 January 2009 (UTC)

Answer to question #1: Most MD's I know, would assume you meant non-osteopathically trained. The DO's I know simply use it to refer to their MD colleagues. It gets ambiguous if used by a non-physician practitioner.

I'm not sure about your last question, and I'm trying to think of a non-anecdotal explanation of #2. At one dinner (happened to be RAH devotees), one of our members (yes, she is a rocket scientist) was complaining of pain from computer overuse. We had an MD and DO in the bunch. The MD was about to go to his car and get some very reasonable anti-inflammatories, but the DO, who was sitting next to her, did some pushing and poking on her back, there was a loud click, and the pain was gone. Now, Matt may hit me for this, but the DO once explained that he got a full medical education plus "the good stuff from the chiropractors".

Osteopathic and allopathic medical schools (yes, those are the terms used when a medical education person is speaking of them) have the same core training, but sometimes I'll say a different teaching style. I have known all permutations of competent and incompetent MDs and DOs. Howard C. Berkowitz 20:02, 5 January 2009 (UTC)

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