Talk:Cogito ergo sum: Difference between revisions
imported>Ro Thorpe m (Facilis est) |
imported>Larry Sanger No edit summary |
||
| Line 5: | Line 5: | ||
:Okie, but still unanswered is the question of why it came down to us in the Latin form.... [[User:Hayford Peirce|Hayford Peirce]] 18:08, 18 January 2008 (CST) | :Okie, but still unanswered is the question of why it came down to us in the Latin form.... [[User:Hayford Peirce|Hayford Peirce]] 18:08, 18 January 2008 (CST) | ||
::Could it be because the Latin is neater and easier to pronounce...? [[User:Ro Thorpe|Ro Thorpe]] 18:40, 18 January 2008 (CST) | ::Could it be because the Latin is neater and easier to pronounce...? [[User:Ro Thorpe|Ro Thorpe]] 18:40, 18 January 2008 (CST) | ||
Because Descartes wrote the ''Discourse'' in both French and Latin, that's why. | |||
I've taught & studied this topic, and will do a general edit. --[[User:Larry Sanger|Larry Sanger]] 19:03, 18 January 2008 (CST) | |||
Revision as of 19:03, 18 January 2008
Unfortunately I think, therefore I am reveals a rather counterproductive aspect of radical skepticism. Since part of the conclusion reached is that one can only be absolotely certain of one's own existance, and everything else in the universe is suspect, it makes it rather difficult to state anything at all as a "fact". You just can't really be certain. It might be important to emphasize this more in the article...--David Yamakuchi 22:31, 30 December 2007 (CST)
- I thought that Descartes originally wrote it in the Latin. But maybe not. Did he first write (say) "Je pense, donc j'existe" or "Je pense, donc je suis"? If so, then why would it have come down to us in Latin rather than French? And, if this really is the case, this should also be explained in the article. I mean, after all, none of Shakespeare's famous phrases are known to us by their Latin translation....Hayford Peirce 22:35, 30 December 2007 (CST)
My Philosophy Teacher (who also spoke French) claimed it was "Je pense, donc je suis".--David Yamakuchi 17:44, 18 January 2008 (CST)
- Okie, but still unanswered is the question of why it came down to us in the Latin form.... Hayford Peirce 18:08, 18 January 2008 (CST)
- Could it be because the Latin is neater and easier to pronounce...? Ro Thorpe 18:40, 18 January 2008 (CST)
Because Descartes wrote the Discourse in both French and Latin, that's why.
I've taught & studied this topic, and will do a general edit. --Larry Sanger 19:03, 18 January 2008 (CST)